评析全国高考生物ⅠⅡ卷试卷

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评析全国高考生物ⅠⅡ卷试卷

篇1:评析全国高考生物ⅠⅡ卷试卷

20高考全国I卷生物试卷评析

年高考全国I卷生物试卷(以下简称“试卷”)遵循高考评价体系理念,全面贯彻和落实“立德树人”的根本任务,通过核心价值引领,突显对核心知识和关键能力的考查,检测考生学科素养发展水平,体现了基础性、综合性、应用性、创新性的基本要求。试卷整体稳中有新,彰显了生物学科的特点,通过创设新情境,运用必备知识,解决实际问题。

一、注重基础综合,引导“中学教学”

必备知识是学科素养的基础支撑。试卷以核心主干知识、课堂实验为蓝本,注重对知识的准确记忆和综合运用的能力,考生必须对基础知识理解透彻,才能将所学知识融汇贯通。

例如,考查考生对细胞呼吸、群落、细胞结构与功能、微生物培养等核心主干知识的准确记忆;考查考生对课内基础实验的精确记忆和运用。

二、重视“关键能力”,助力人才培养

关键能力是高水平人才的必备素质,试卷通过实验探究题考查学生的实践操作能力,通过综合运用题考查思维认知能力,通过开放性试题考查语言表述能力。

如设置试题,以农作物生产、药物探究为情境,给出表格、文字信息,考查学生的信息获取能力和实验探究分析能力;以实验探究形式,设置问题步步深入,环环相扣,最后概述总结,考查思维认知能力。此外,还设置开放性试题,考查考生的语言表述能力。

三、立足情境创新,突显素质教育

创新型人才培养是国家科教兴国和人才强国战略的重要方向。试卷通过创设新情境,设置开放性题目,考查考生能否在新颖和陌生的情境中,摆脱思维定势的束缚,主动思考,大胆创新,完成开放性或探究性任务,并发现新问题,找到新规律,得出新结论,成为创新型人才。

例如,有试题以与现实紧密相连的新冠疫情为情境,考查考生运用病毒和灭菌等知识,解决实际问题;以中耕松土的农业生产为情境,考查考生对基础知识的灵活运用和问题分析能力。

总的来说,2020年高考全国I卷生物试卷体现了“稳中有新、注重基础、突显能力、素养导向”的命题思路,加大回归教材的力度,有利于中学素质教育的实施,对中学生物教学具有很好的导向作用。

2020年高考全国Ⅱ卷生物试题评析

一、总体评析

2020年高考全国Ⅱ卷理综试卷生物试题(以下简称“生物试卷”)紧密围绕“一核四层四翼”的高考评价体系展开,在考查生物学科素养、关键能力、生物必备知识的过程中,引导考生增强社会责任意识,充分体现了“立德树人”的核心。

在考查方式上,保持生物试卷一贯的风格特征,稳中有进,突出基础性和应用性,倡导学以致用。在考查内容上,重视核心概念与主干内容,强化基础,引导教学回归本质,助力推进素质教育。

二、试卷结构

三、试题特点

1.重核心知识纵观整套生物试卷,对于必备知识的考查突出基础性,重视核心主干知识。

如第2题、第4题、第29题,依次从记忆、理解、应用三个层面上对免疫、变异、遗传的分子基础三部分核心知识进行了考查,对学生生物知识积累和深度理解提出了要求。

2.重知识在情景中的应用

在情景中灵活运用生物知识解决实际问题,在实际应用中考查生物学科素养也是生物试题的一大特点。

如第1题、第6题、第31题、第38题,设置了生活及科研中常见的情境,试题较为灵活,既考查基础也考查思维。第1题结合社会热点,在考查生物知识的同时也在向社会传递问题解决要以科学知识为依托的信号。

3.重实验应用

生物是一门实验性学科,高考中对实验的考查始终是一个热点。本套试题从教材基础实验及实验探究两方面进行了考查。

教材基础实验方面,如第3题对必修一中涉及的多个基础教材实验进行考查。再如第30题则将教材中的一种实验技术在实际应用中进行考查。

实验探究方面,第38题结合选修知识考查了实验结果的分析,需要考生在平时的实验训练中形成良好的实验素养。

4.重新技术与生态治理

关注生态文明,倡导环境保护理念,落实社会责任。试题坚持学科素养导向,着意传递保护环境的社会责任意识与建设生态文明的使命担当。

如第38题针对生态环境保护和改善问题,创设无废弃农业、污水净化灯等情境,考查考生对生态工程、生物净化的理解和运用。

总体而言,2020年全国Ⅱ卷理综试卷生物试题,立足基础性、综合性、应用性,注重必备知识和学科素养的考查,很好地实现了引导教学和立德树人的功能。

篇2:2022年全国甲卷高考语文试卷

截止目前,2022年全国甲卷高考语文答案解析还未出炉,待高考结束后,力力会第一时间更新2022年全国甲卷高考语文答案解析,供大家对照、估分、模拟使用。

提前批次可以报几个志愿

艺术类本科提前批设第一、第二两个志愿,每个志愿设1个高校志愿、4个专业志愿及专业是否服从调剂志愿。需要注意的是提前批这两个志愿不是平行志愿而是顺序志愿,以志愿优先,因此需要认真考虑第一志愿院校的填报。

艺术类本科一批次需要填报1次志愿,征集2次志愿。都是填报1个高校志愿、4个专业志愿及专业是否服从调剂志愿。其中第二次征集志愿设美术类专业高校是否服从调剂志愿。如果分数较高,可以报考文理本科一批次相关学校,或者没有特别意愿上非填报志愿学校,建议填“否”,否则要选择“高校服从调剂”可以保证有相应艺术类一批学校上。当然28日填报的为艺术类本科一批第一次志愿。

普通文理类提前批:本科在录取前填报1次志愿,录取过程中征集1次志愿,均填报1所高校,6个专业志愿及专业是否服从调剂志愿。征集志愿时增设高校是否服从调剂志愿调剂志愿,设3类高校及专业(军事、公安、其他)及专业是否服从调剂志愿。这里要注意,如果分数不是特别高,可选择提前批来拔拔高,除非特别想上提前批次的学校或专业,否则请慎重选择学校是否调剂志愿。提前批没有录取不影响一批次志愿的填报和录取。

专科提前批(含直招士官):设1个高校志愿和高校及专业是否服从调剂志愿。高校志愿均可填报6个专业及专业是否服从调剂志愿。

春季高考本科提前批:设1个高校志愿、4个专业志愿和专业是否服从调剂志愿。注意该志愿只有技能拔尖人才可以填报。

高水平运动员:只设1个高校志愿,没有专业和是否服从调剂志愿。这个基本上没有悬念,高水平运动员基本都已经提前确定好了。

参加提前批次的院校及专业

含综合大学或师范类院校的艺术类、体育专业——艺术类、体育类院校

含政法类院校的公安类专业——军事院校 武警院校 公安院校、

部分院校的小语种专业

国防生

隶属于团中央的中国青年政治学院、国际关系学院、中共中央办公厅的北京电子科技学院、外交部的外交学院。

部分师范院校的免费师范生:指报考教育部6所直属师范大学之一,有条件地接受免费师范教育的学生。

提前批志愿和零志愿的区别

1、提前批志愿是指根据国家有关规定,将一部分招生类别、性质、专业基本相同或相近的学校和国家批准提前录取的一些学校集中起来,在大规模招生之前进行提前录取。提前录取志愿是提前进行录取的志愿

2、零志愿是指清华、北大,除此以外不再存在于零志愿。军事院校属于提前录取。艺术类也属于提前录取。零志愿分一志愿和二志愿,一志愿录取完了不可能收二志愿高考填报志愿(各地可能有所不同),以河南省为例:高考录取分批次,分为:本科一批(一本),本科二批(二本),本科三批,高职高专。由于个人原因,对后两者及艺术、体育生不是很了解。一本、二本,均分有第一志愿和第二志愿。第一志愿只能报考一所学校,但能报考该学校的五个专业;第二志愿能报考四所学校,但每所学校只能报考两个专业。一般大学在第一志愿时基本就已招满,不再考虑第二志愿的考生,所以第一志愿是重中之重。投档线与录取线是不同的概念,各高校在招生时为了应对一些突发事件,都不是按照招生计划数投档的,而是要多出一部分以供选择。

篇3:2022年全国乙卷高考语文试卷

2022年全国乙卷高考语文试卷最新

学好高中语文的技巧和方法

兴趣

要想学好语文我们必须对语文有兴趣,这样我们才能愿意学习语文,如果我们对语文不感兴趣的话,在上课的时候,我们也是不愿意听老师讲课的,这样对我们学习语文没有什么帮助。

兴趣是我们学习语文的基础,只有有了兴趣我们才能为学习语文而努力。

自主学习

我们在学习语文的时候,还要学会自己学习,学习语文要有主动性,这是提升我们语文成绩最快也是最好的方法。

多思考

学习语文,并不是把所有的知识都背下来就可以了,有些问题还是需要我们思考的,我们把语文知识背下来之后,我们要学会总结。概括,这样我们的成绩才能够提高。

多读

语文不仅要把背,我们还要多读,每天多读几篇文章,这样对提高我们的阅读成绩是非常的有帮助的,在学习语文的过程中,我们一定要学会怎么正确的提高成绩。

跳出

我们要跳出固有的思维,我们在思考的时候,我们的成绩才能够快速的提高,这对我们的提高成绩语文成绩是非常的有帮助的。

多写

学语文,书写语文是非常的重要的,我们在学习语文的时候,一定要多练习书写。

语文学习十大习惯

1、熟读、背诵的习惯。

2、阅读优秀课外读物的习惯。

3、推敲语言文字的习惯。

4、积累语言材料的习惯。

5、记日记的习惯。

6、规范地书写的习惯。

7、专注地听人说话的习惯。

8、说普通话、说话文明得体的习惯。

9、勤思考、爱质疑的习惯。

10、勤查工具书的习惯。

篇4:2022年全国乙卷高考英语试卷

2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试

英语

本试卷共 10页,满分 120分。考试用时 120分钟。

注意事项:1.答卷前,考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用 2B铅笔将试卷类型(A)填涂在答题卡相应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。因笔试不考听力,选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始,试题序号从“21”开始。

2.作答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用 2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑;如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案,答案不能答在试卷上。

3.非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上;如需改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

4.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后,将试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第二部分阅读(共两节,满分 50分)

第一节(共 15小题;每小题 2.5分,满分 37.5分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature

Grading Scale

90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.

Essays (60%)

Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade

for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2 = 15%; Essay 3 = 15%; Essay 4 =

20%.

Group Assignments (30%)

Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) duringthe course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned datethrough Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework (10%)Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready tocomplete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assignedreadings or notes from the previous class’ lecture/discussion, so it isimportant to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to timeI will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to becompleted at home, both of which will be graded.

Late Work

An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade foreach class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the duedate, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class willget a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will beaccepted.

21. Where is this text probably taken from?

A. A textbook.

B. An exam paper.

D. An academic article.

C. A course plan.

22. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of?

A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.

23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?

A. You will receive a zero.

C. You will be given a test.

B. You will lose a letter grade.

D. You will have to rewrite it.

B

Like most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. Thearugula (芝麻菜 ) was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roastchicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with adinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, thearugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I

could have made six salads with what I threw out.In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, “food wastegoes against the moral grain,” as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month’scover story. It’s jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away— from “ugly” (but quite eatable) vegetables rejected by grocers to largeamounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and otherresources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem.

In fact, Royte writes, “if food waste were a country, it would be the thirdlargest producer of greenhouse gases in the world.”If that’s hard to understand, let’s keep it as simple as the arugula at theback of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time —but for him, it’s more like 12 boxes of donated strawberries nearing theirlast days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington, D.C., whichrecovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered morethan 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished(有瑕疵的) produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And thestrawberries? Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use inmeals down the road.

Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don’t think. “Everyonecan play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more foodthan necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not

include the side dish you won’t eat.” Curtin says.

24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?

A. We pay little attention to food waste.

B. We waste food unintentionally at times.

C. We waste more vegetables than meat.

D. We have good reasons for wasting food.

25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text?

A. Moral decline.

B. Environmental harm.

C. Energy shortage.

D. Worldwide starvation.

26. What does Curtin’s company do?

A. It produces kitchen equipment.

B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.

C. It helps local farmers grow fruits.

D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.

27. What does Curtin suggest people do?

A. Buy only what is needed.

B. Reduce food consumption.

C. Go shopping once a week.

D. Eat in restaurants less often.

C

The elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being givenhens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.

The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in carehomes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.

Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school.“I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they’ve gone to bed.“It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them.I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful.”There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it outcountrywide.

Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: “Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits andfun the project can bring to people here.”Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: “We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities.”

28. What is the purpose of the project?

A. To ensure harmony in care homes.

B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.

C. To raise money for medical research.

D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare.

29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?

A. She has learned new life skills.

B. She has gained a sense of achievement.

C. She has recovered her memory.

D. She has developed a strong personality.

30. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7?

A. Improve.

B. Oppose.

C. Begin.

D. Evaluate.

31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?

A. It is well received.

B. It needs to be more creative.

D. It takes ages to see the results.

C. It is highly profitable.

D

Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from thecommon “m” and “a” to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than others? A ground-breaking,five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to newspeech sounds that are now found in half the world’s languages.More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as “f” and “v”, were more common in thelanguages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose. They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned (对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure (结构), making it easier to produce such sounds.

The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn’t have to do as much work and sodidn’t grow to be so large. Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a globalchange in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the useof “f” and “v” increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years.These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.

This research overturns the popular view that all human speech soundswere present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. “The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since theappearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things likebiological change and cultural evolution,” said Steven Moran, a member of the research team.

32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi’s research

focus on?

A. Its variety.

B. Its distribution.

D. Its development.

C. Its quantity.

33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?

A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.

B. They could not open and close their lips easily.

C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.

D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.

34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?

A. Supporting evidence for the research results.

B. Potential application of the research findings.

C. A further explanation of the research methods.

D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.

35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?

A. It is key to effective communication.

B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.

C. It is a complex and dynamic system.

D. It drives the evolution of human beings.

第二节(共 5小题;每小题 2.5分,满分 12.5分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选

项中有两项为多余选项。

Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled “Five Reasons to Thank Your Workout Partner.” One reason was: “You’ll actually show up if you know someone is waiting for you at the gym,” while another read: “ 36 ” With a workout partner, you will increase your training effort as there is a subtle (微妙) competition.So, how do you find a workout partner? First of all, decide what you want from that person.

37

Or do you just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility?Think about the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner. You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media, but it probably won’t result in a useful response. If you plan on

38

working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.

My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her

notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a

week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age.

It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone

number.

39

You and your partner will probably have different skills.

40

Over time, both of you will benefit — your partner will be able to lift more weights and you will become more physically fit. The core (核心) of your relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.

A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.

B. A workout partner usually needs to live close by.

C. You’ll work harder if you train with someone else.

D. Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?

E. How can you write a good “seeking training partner” notice?

F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.

G. Any notice for a training partner should include such information.

第三部分语言运用(共两节,满分 30分)

第一节(共 15小题;每小题 1分,满分 15分)

阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入

空白处的最佳选项。

My husband, our children and I have had wonderful campingexperiences over the past ten years.

Some of our

41

are funny, especially from the early years whenalong Chalk Creek. I was

our children were little. Once, we

42

43

that our 15-month-old boy would fall into the creek (小溪). I tied a rope

around his waist to keep him near to our spot. That lasted about ten minutes.

He was

44 , and his crying let the whole campground know it. So

45

tying him up, I just kept a close eye on him. It

in the creek. My three-year-old, however, did.

46

— he didn’t end up

Another time, we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake. The sky was clear

when we 47 , but storms move in fast in the mountains, and this one

our peaceful morning trip. The picked up andthunder rolled. My husband stopped fishing to the motor. Nothing.He tried again. No 51 . We were stuck in the middle of the lake with adead motor. As we all sat there 52 , a fisherman pulled up, threw us a

quickly

48

49

50

rope and towed (拖) us back. We were 53 . Now, every year when my

husband pulls our camper out of the garage, we are filled with a sense of

54 , wondering what camping fun and

55

we will experience next.

41. A. ideas

B. jokes

C. memories

C. walked

D. discoveries

D. cycled

42. A. camped

43. A. annoyed

44. A. unhurt

45. A. due to

46. A. worked

B. drove

B. surprised

B. unfortunate

B. instead of

B. happened

C. disappointed

C. uncomfortable

C. apart from

C. mattered

D. worried

D. unafraid

D. as for

D. changed

D. headed off

D. recorded

D. speed

47. A. signed up B. calmed down C. checked out

48. A. arranged B. interrupted

C. completed

C. temperature

C. start

49. A. wind

50. A. find

51. A. luck

B. noise

B. hide

D. fix

B. answer

C. wonder

C. doubtfully

C. safe

D. signal

52. A. patiently B. tirelessly

D. helplessly

D. right

53. A. sorry

54. A. relief

55. A. failure

B. brave

B. duty

C. pride

D. excitement

D. conflict

B. adventure

C. performance

第二节(共 10小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 15分)

阅读下面短文,在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant

Panda National Park (GPNP).

size of Yellowstone National Park, the GPNP will be one of the first

national parks in the country. The plan will extend protection to a

significant number of areas that (be) previously unprotected,

bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under one

56

(cover) an area about three times

57

58

authority

59

(increase) effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in

management

After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next

year. The GPNP (design) to reflect the guiding principle of

“protecting the authenticity and integrity (完整性) of natural ecosystems,

preserving biological diversity, protecting ecological buffer zones,

leaving behind precious natural assets (资产) for future generations”. The

GPNP’s main goal is to improve connectivity between separate

60

61

62

(population) and homes of giant pandas, and

desired level of population in the wild.

63

(eventual) achieve a

Giant pandas also serve

64

an umbrella species (物种),bringing

protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and

northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger

protection for all the species

65

live within the Giant Panda Range and

significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area.

第四部分写作(共两节,满分 40分)

第一节(满分 15分)

假定你是校广播站英语节目 “Talk and Talk”的负责人李华,请给外教

Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。内容包括:

1.节目介绍;

2.访谈的时间和话题。

注意:

1.写作词数应为 80左右;

2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

Dear Caroline,

Yours sincerely,

Li Hua

第二节(满分 25分)

阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇

完整的短文。

It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different

primary schools in and around the small town were warming up and

walking the route (路线) through thick evergreen forest.

I looked around and finally spotted David, who was standing by himself

off to the side by a fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy

smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn’t with the

other children. He hesitated and then said he had decided not to run.

What was wrong? He had worked so hard for this event!

I quickly searched the crowd for the school’s coach and asked him what

had happened. “I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at

him,” he explained uncomfortably. “I gave him the choice to run or not, and

let him decide.”

I bit back my frustration (懊恼 ). I knew the coach meant well — he

thought he was doing the right thing. After making sure that David could

run if he wanted, I turned to find him coming towards me, his small body

rocking from side to side as he swung his feet forward.

David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running

like other children, but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular

kid. He always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were

doing. That was why none of the children thought it unusual that David had

decided to join the cross-country team. It just took him longer — that’s all.

David had not missed a single practice, and although he always finished his

run long after the other children, he did always finish. As a special education

teacher at the school, I was familiar with the challenges David faced and was

proud of his strong determination.

注意:

1.续写词数应为 150左右;

2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me.

I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners.

篇5:高考全国III卷语文试卷及答案

17.下列在文中括号处补写的语句,最恰当的一项是(3分)

A.传承中华文化就是维系中华民族的精神命脉

B.传承中华文化必须维系中华民族的精神命脉

C.维系中华民族的精神命脉就是传承中华文化

D.维系中华民族的精神命脉就能传承中华文化

18.依次填入文中横线上的词语,全都恰当的一项是(3分)

A.一脉相承 薪火相承 博大精深 源远流长

B.互为一体 前赴后继 博大精深 卓尔不群

C.互为一体 薪火相传 繁荣昌盛 源远流长

D.一脉相承 前赴后继 繁荣昌盛 卓尔不群

19.文中画横线的部分有语病,下列修改最恰当的一项是(3分)

A.不是生理的因素,而是文化的、精神的

B.不是生理的,而是文化的、精神的

C.不仅是生理的,而是文化的、精神的

D.不仅是生理的因素,而是文化的、精神的

20.再下面一段文字横线处补写恰当的语句,使整段文字语意完整连贯、内容贴切,逻辑严密,每处不超过8个字。(6分)

206月3日,国青委召开中央企业助力湖北疫后重振发展视频会议.在视频会议上,国青委表示,支持将武汉纳入区域性国资国企综合改革试验区,打造改革高地,要继续加大力度,推动各项政策措施在湖北早落地、早见效、早受益,把政策优势转化为发展优势,更好地助力湖北疫后重振。在视频会议现场,央企和湖北省签署72个项目,在原定今年对湖北计划总授予3900亿元基础上,将新增投资吵过200亿元。

四.写作(60分)

22.阅读下面的材料,根据要求写作。(60分)

人们用眼睛看他人、看世界,却无法直接看到完整的自己,所以在人生的旅程中,我们需要寻找各种“镜子”、不断绘制“自画像”来审视自我。尝试回答“我是怎样的人”“我想过怎样的生活”“我能做什么”“如何生活的更有意义”等重要问题。

毕业前,学校请你给即将入学的高一新生写一封信,主题是“如何为自己画好像”,与他们分享自己的感悟与戏考。

要求:结合材料,选好角度,确定立意,自拟标题:不要套作,不得抄袭;不得泄露个人信息;不少于800字。

参考答案

1-3 CCD

4-5 DD

6.①有比较充分的准备:熟悉对方的写作,作为责编,尤其熟悉作品《钟南山:苍生在上》;②重视对方的观点:提问时采取对方文章中的说法来引出话题,营造对话氛围;③逐步深入地提问:从写作动机问起,问到写作方式和具体内容,最后问到对方的文学观。

7.C

8.①萌生念头:大同学对火车形象的描述,让“我”萌生看火车的念头;②付诸行动:夜间穿过坟场,耳朵贴在铁轨上,写出“我”看火车时的兴奋与好奇;③抒发感受:火车头上挂着光芒闪烁的镰刀锤头图案,让“我”感到特别,也感到亲切。

9.①“记忆里的光”,指火车头上“光芒闪烁的图标”,即镰刀锤头,是本文的核心意象;②围绕这一核心意象,按照时间顺序,安排了“我”少年、青年、中年的人生片段,每一片段都同“镰刀锤头”相关;③最后,以“全科人”的身份表达出“我”对“镰刀锤头”的深厚感情,呼应题目,升华主题。

10-12 BAC

13.(1)朝臣家中有人得流行病,如果三人以上染病,即使本人未病,百日之内也不准入宫。

(2)病重,皇帝派黄门侍郎探问病痛,赐钱三十万给他治病买药。

14.C

15.①历史上的魏征以“犯颜直谏”著称,其言行常常令人难以接受,好比苦笋的滋味并不适口;②苦笋与生俱来的“苦节”,象征耿介性格,与魏征方正的人格相似,应该得到认可。

16.(1)不义而富且贵 于我如浮云(2)力尽不知热 但惜夏日长(3)多于机上之工女 多于市人之言语

17-19.ACB

20.①都要消耗能量②直接吸收利用③食物热效应

21.示例:①年6月3日,②国资委召开中央企业助力湖北疫后重振发展视频会议,③支持将武汉纳入区域性国资国企综合改革试验区,④央企和湖北省签署72个项目,⑤将新增投资超过3200亿元。

篇6:全国乙卷高考英语试卷及答案2022

全国乙卷答案

第一部分听力

1.B 2.C 3.B 4.A 5.C 6.A 7.C 8.A 9.C 10.A 11.A 12.C 13.C 14.B 15.A

16.B 17.B 18.C 19.A 20.B

第二部分 阅读理解

21.B 22.B 23.C 24.A 25.D 26.C 27.B 28. A 29.C 30.A 31.D 32.C 33.D 34.D 35.B

七选五

36-40. DEGAF

完形填空

41-45.CBADC 46-50. CBDAB 51-55. BACAD 56-60. ABCDD

语法填空

61.by 62. the 63. addressed 64. largest 65. responsibility

66. shared 67. and 68. to 69. inviting 70. its

改错题

第一句:greatly→great第二句:lives→live

第三句:because后加of第四句:Whether→When

第五句:they→you;cause→causing

第六句:去掉been

第七句:what→which第八句:were→are

第九句:bicycle→bicycles

志愿填报流程

1、指定时间内登录高考志愿填报网站,输入用户名和密码;

2、进入网上填报志愿系统后,填写高考报名号、姓名、性别、报名区县等基本信息;

3、选择批次填报志愿,填写报考院校的代码以及所选专业代码;

4、仔细核对网页上的填报信息,确认志愿信息无误后,点击“保存”按钮即可。

篇7:2022全国乙卷高考英语试卷及答案

全国乙卷答案

第一部分听力

1.B 2.C 3.B 4.A 5.C 6.A 7.C 8.A 9.C 10.A 11.A 12.C 13.C 14.B 15.A

16.B 17.B 18.C 19.A 20.B

第二部分 阅读理解

21.B 22.B 23.C 24.A 25.D 26.C 27.B 28. A 29.C 30.A 31.D 32.C 33.D 34.D 35.B

七选五

36-40. DEGAF

完形填空

41-45.CBADC 46-50. CBDAB 51-55. BACAD 56-60. ABCDD

语法填空

61.by 62. the 63. addressed 64. largest 65. responsibility

66. shared 67. and 68. to 69. inviting 70. its

改错题

第一句:greatly→great第二句:lives→live

第三句:because后加of第四句:Whether→When

第五句:they→you;cause→causing

第六句:去掉been

第七句:what→which第八句:were→are

第九句:bicycle→bicycles

高考之后可以去哪玩

1、云南

云南是一个温和的城市,也是许多人向往的地方。可以在丽江感受古城魅力、在大理感受风花雪月、在香格里拉体验传说中的女儿国,一个四季如春的地方很适合放松心情。

云南香格里拉,感受真正的大自然。香格里拉的自然景色是雪山、冰川、峡谷、森林、草甸、湖泊、美丽、明朗、安然、闲逸、悠远、知足、宁静、和谐,是人们美好理想的归宿。在7月到8月间,避开如涌的人群,把自己放逐在自然,听风的呼唤,听鸟的鸣叫,听流水的声音,聆听自己的心声,这是真正的香格里拉。

2、杭州

“上有天堂,下有苏杭”,杭州是我国宜居城市之一,到西湖边上走一走,品尝东坡肉、干炸响铃、西湖醋鱼……

3、重庆

说到重庆就会想到“山城”,说起来重庆也是一个神奇的城市,你以为你在以为你在地面,其实你在地下。到重庆看穿越房屋的轻轨、看斑斓的城市,还能吃上麻辣辣的火锅。

4、厦门

厦门是一个小资城市,尤其是鼓浪屿,充满文艺气息,也适合情侣度假。而且因为靠海,厦门还有非常多便宜又好吃的海鲜

5、西藏

西藏是一个神圣又神秘的地方,如果有机会,人生中一定要去一次。到布达拉宫、纳木错体验纯净的心灵,到珠穆朗玛峰挑战高峰,即使是高原反应也是值得留念的体验。

6、九寨沟

九寨沟以绝天下的原始、神秘而闻名。自然景色兼有湖泊、瀑布、雪山、森林之美,有“童话世界”的美誉。这时雪峰玉立,青山流水,交相辉映。这时的瀑布、溪流更是迷人,如飞珠撒玉,异常雄伟秀丽。其中有千年古木,奇花异草,四时变化,色彩纷呈,倒影斑斓,气象万千,是夏季消暑的理想之地。

7、桂林

“桂林山水甲天下”夸的就是桂林的漓江山水。漓江两岸风景如画,当你泛着竹排漫游漓江时,肯定会感觉自己置身于360的泼墨山水中,好山好水目不暇接。另外,桂林的阳朔可是一个魅力十足的旅游热点。在阳朔上至七八十的老人,下至七八岁的小孩都或多或少能说上几句流利的英语,要不是周围的建筑风格提醒你这是中国境内,没准你还以为自己魂游到哪个“鬼”地方了呢。西街的氛围有点像北京的三里屯,那里的酒吧融合了中西两种文化的精华,在西街呆着就算不喝酒只喝茶,也能体会什么叫享受。

篇8:2022年全国乙卷高考英语试卷及答案

第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例:How much is the shirt?

A. ?19.15. B. ?9.18. C. ?9.15.

答案是C。

1. What does the man want to do?

A. Have breakfast. B. Take a walk. C. Call his office.

2. What was George doing last night?

A. Having a meeting. B. Flying home. C. Working on a project.

3. Why does the man suggest going to the park?

A. It's big. B. It's quiet. C. It's new.

4. How does the woman sound?

A. Annoyed. B. Pleased. C. Puzzled.

5. Where is the man's table?

A. Near the door. B. By the window. C. In the corner.

第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。

6. What are the speakers going to do tonight?

A. Eat out. B. Go shopping. C. Do sports.

7. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?

A. Boss and secretary. B. Hostess and guest. C. Husband and wife.

听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。

8. Why does the woman think July is the best time to move?

A. Their business is slow. B. The weather is favorable. C. It's easy to hire people.

9. How will they handle the moving?

A. Finish it all at once. B. Have the sales section go first. C. Do one department at a time.

听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。

10. What did Peter learn from his grandfather?

A. How to appreciate art works. B. How to deal with artists. C. How to run a museum.

11. What did Peter do in Chicago?

A. He studied at a college. B. He served in the army. C. He worked in a gallery.

12. Whose works did Peter like best?

A. Rembrandt's. B. Botticelli's. C. Rubens'.

听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。

13. Where does the conversation take place?

A. At a library. B. In a law firm. C. On a train.

14. By what time did John plan to finish his term paper?

A. March. B. August. C. October.

15. Why did John quit his part-time job?

A. He had to catch up with his study. B. He was offered a better one. C. He got tired of it.

16. What is Susan's attitude to John's problem?

A. Carefree. B. Understanding. C. Forgiving.

听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。

17. What did the speaker do before the year ?

A. A fitness coach. B. A chess player. C. A marathon runner.

18. Why was the Olympics important for the speaker?

A. He was motivated by Bolt. B. He broke a world record. C. He won fifth place.

19. Which is the hardest for the speaker?

A. Getting over an injury. B. Doing strength training. C. Representing Botswana.

20. What is the speaker mainly talking about?

A. His plan to go for the gold.

B. His experience on the track.

C. His love for his home country.

第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

A

Henry Raeburn(1756-1823)

The Exhibition

This exhibition of some sixty masterpieces celebrating the life and work of Scotland's best loved painter, Sir Henry Raeburn, comes to London. Selected from collections throughout the world, it is the first major exhibition of his work to be held in over forty years.

Lecture Series

Scottish National Portrait(肖像画)Gallery presents a series of lectures for the general public. They are held in the Lecture Room. Admission to lectures is free.

AnIntroductiontoRaeburn

Sunday26Oct.,15.00

DUNCANTHOMSON

Raeburn'sEnglishContemporaries

Thursday30Oct.,13.10

JUDYEGERTON

CharactersandCharacterisationin

Raeburn'sPortraits

Thursday6Nov.,13.10

NICHOLASPHILLIPSON

RaeburnandArtist'sTraininginthe

18thCentury

Thursday13Nov.,13.10

MARTINPOSTLE

Exhibition Times

Monday-Saturday 10.00-17.45 Sunday 12.00-17.45

Last admission to the exhibition: 17.15. There is no re-admission.

Closed: 24-26 December and 1 January.

Admission

?4. Children under 12 years accompanied by an adult are admitted free.

Schools and Colleges

A special low entrance charge of f2 per person is available to all in full-time education, up to and including those at first degree level, in organised groups with teachers.

21. What is the right time for attending Raeburn's English Contemporaries?

A. Sun. 26 Oct. B. Thurs. 30 Oct. C. Thurs. 6 Nov. D. Thurs.13 Nov.

22. How much would a couple with two children under 12 pay for admission?

A. ?4. B. ?8. C. ?12. D. ?16.

23. How can full-time students get group discounts?

A. They should go on Sunday mornings. B. They should come from art schools.

C. They must be led by teachers. D. They must have ID cards with them.

B

In 1916, two girls of wealthy families, best friends from Auburn, N. Y.—Dorothy Woodruff and Rosamond Underwood—traveled to a settlement in the Rocky Mountains to teach in a one-room schoolhouse. The girls had gone to Smith College. They wore expensive clothes. So for them to move to Elkhead, Colo. to instruct the children whose shoes were held together with string was a surprise. Their stay in Elkhead is the subject of Nothing Daunted: The Unexpected Education of Two Society Girls in the West by Dorothy Wickenden, who is a magazine editor and Dorothy Woodruff's granddaughter.

Why did they go then? Well, they wanted to do something useful. Soon, however, they realized what they had undertaken.

They moved in with a local family, the Harrisons, and, like them, had little privacy, rare baths, and a blanket of snow on their quilt when they woke up in the morning. Some mornings, Rosamond and Dorothy would arrive at the schoolhouse to find the children weeping from the cold. In spring, the snow was replaced by mud over ice.

In Wickenden's book, she expanded on the history of the West and also on feminism, which of course influenced the girls' decision to go to Elkhead. A hair-raising section concerns the building of the railroads, which entailed(牵涉)drilling through the Rockies, often in blinding snowstorms. The book ends with Rosamond and Dorothy's return to Auburn.

Wickenden is a very good storyteller. The sweep of the land and the stoicism(坚忍)of the people move her to some beautiful writing. Here is a picture of Dorothy Woodruff, on her horse, looking down from a hill top: “When the sun slipped behind the mountains, it shed a rosy glow all around them. Then a full moon rose. The snow was marked only by small animals: foxes, coyotes, mice, and varying hares, which turned white in the winter.”

24. Why did Dorothy and Rosamond go to the Rocky Mountains?

A. To teach in a school. B. To study American history.

C. To write a book. D. To do sightseeing.

25. What can we learn about the girls from paragraph 3?

A. They enjoyed much respect. B. They had a room with a bathtub.

C. They lived with the local kids. D. They suffered severe hardships.

26. Which part of Wickenden's writing is hair-raising?

A. The extreme climate of Auburn. B. The living conditions in Elkhead.

C. The railroad building in the Rockies. D. The natural beauty of the West.

27. What is the text?

A. A news report. B. A book review. C. A children's story. D. A diary entry.

C

Can a small group of drones(无人机)guarantee the safety and reliability of railways and, at the same time, help railway operators save billions of euros each year? That is the very likely future of applying today's “eyes in the sky” technology to making sure that the millions of kilometres of rail tracks and infrastructure(基础设施)worldwide are safe for trains on a 24/7 basis.

Drones are already being used to examine high-tension electrical lines. They could do precisely the same thing to inspect railway lines and other vital aspects of rail infrastructure such as the correct position of railway tracks and switching points. The more regularly they can be inspected, the more railway safety, reliability and on-time performance will be improved. Costs would be cut and operations would be more efficient(高效)across the board.

That includes huge savings in maintenance costs and better protection of railway personnel safety. It is calculated that European railways alone spend approximately 20 billion euros a year on maintenance, including sending maintenance staff, often at night, to inspect and repair the rail infrastructure. That can be dangerous work that could be avoided with drones assisting the crews' efforts.

By using the latest technologies, drones could also start providing higher-value services for railways, detecting faults in the rail or switches, before they can cause any safety problems. To perform these tasks, drones for rail don't need to be flying overhead. Engineers are now working on a new concept: the rail drones of the future. They will be moving on the track ahead of the train, and programmed to run autonomously. Very small drones with advanced sensors and AI and travelling ahead of the train could guide it like a co-pilot. With their ability to see ahead, they could signal any problem, so that fast-moving trains would be able to react in time.

28. What makes the application of drones to rail lines possible?

A. The use of drones in checking on power lines. B. Drones' ability to work at high altitudes.

C. The reduction of cost in designing drones. D. Drones' reliable performance in remote areas.

29. What does “maintenance” underlined in paragraph 3 refer to?

A. Personnel safety. B. Assistance from drones.

C. Inspection and repair. D. Construction of infrastructure.

30. What function is expected of the rail drones?

A. To provide early warning. B. To make trains run automatically.

C. To earn profits for the crews. D. To accelerate transportation.

31. Which is the most suitable title for the text?

A. What Faults Can Be Detected with Drones

B. How Production of Drones Can Be Expanded

C. What Difficulty Drone Development Will Face

D. How Drones Will Change the Future of Railways

D

The Government's sugar tax on soft drinks has brought in half as much money as Ministers first predicted it would generate, the first official data on the policy has shown.

First announced in April, 2016, the tax which applies to soft drinks containing more than 5g of sugar per 100ml, was introduced to help reduce childhood obesity(肥胖). It is believed that today's children and teenagers are consuming three times the recommended level of sugar, putting them at a higher risk of the disease.

Initially the sugar tax was expected to make ?520m a year for the Treasury. However, data of the first six months showed it would make less than half this amount. At present it is expected to generate ?240m for the year ending in April , which will go to school sports.

It comes after more than half of soft drinks sold in shops have had their sugar levels cut by manufacturers(制造商)so they can avoid paying the tax. Drinks now contain 45 million fewer kilos of sugar as a result of manufacturers' efforts to avoid the charge, according to Treasury figures. Since April drinks companies have been forced to pay between 18p and 24p for every litre of sugary drink they produce or import, depending on the sugar content.

However, some high sugar brands, like Classic Coca Cola, have accepted the sugar tax and are refusing to change for fear of upsetting consumers. Fruit juices, milk-based drinks and most alcoholic drinks are free of the tax, as are small companies manufacturing fewer than 1m litres per year.

Today's figures, according to one government official, show the positive influence the sugar tax is having by raising millions of pounds for sports facilities(设施)and healthier eating in schools. Helping the next generation to have a healthy and active childhood is of great importance, and the industry is playing its part.

32. Why was the sugar tax introduced?

A. To collect money for schools. B. To improve the quality of drinks.

C. To protect children's health. D. To encourage research in education.

33. How did some drinks companies respond to the sugar tax?

A. They turned to overseas markets. B. They raised the prices of their products.

C. They cut down on their production. D. They reduced their products' sugar content.

34. From which of the following is the sugar tax collected?

A. Most alcoholic drinks. B. Milk-based drinks. C. Fruit juices. D. Classic Coke.

35. What can be inferred about the adoption of the sugar tax policy?

A. It is a short-sighted decision. B. It is a success story.

C. It benefits manufacturers. D. It upsets customers.

第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Friendship needs care and attention to keep it in good health. Here are five ways to sustain(保持)long-distance friendships.

·Set a regular date

Long-lasting friendships share the characteristic that both sides equally contact(联系)and share with one another. With busy schedules, squeezing in phone calls can be a challenge. 36

·More isn't always merrier

Make sure you have communicated with your friend about how frequently each of you wants to be contacted and what method works best for you both. 37 . There are alternatives to constant written communication, such as leaving voice messages or having a group chat.

·Practise empathy(共情)

38 . The friend who is remaining needs to be sensitive to all the additional time demands placed on the friend who has moved. The one in the new environment should be sympathetic to the fact that your friend may feel abandoned.

· 39

Anniversaries and birthdays carry even more weight in long-distance friendships. Although technology might make day-to-day communication possible, extra effort goes a long way on special days. Simply keeping a diary that keeps track of friends' birthdays and other important dates will make sure nothing slips by you.

·Don't rely on technology alone

40 , but long-distance friendships -even close ones -may require more conscious effort to sustain. Try to seek out chances to renew friendships. How to do it? Just spend face-to-face time together whenever possible.

A. Remember important dates

B. Compensate by writing letters

C. It is also helpful for you to be a friendship keeper

D. Try to find a time that works for both of you and stick to it

E. Friends need to talk about their preferred methods of communication

F. It is easy to have a sense of connectedness through social media

G. You may be the friend who left or the one who was left behind

语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)

第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

Young children across the globe enjoy playing games of hide and seek. For them, there's something highly exciting about 41 someone else's glance and making oneself unable to be seen.

However, we all witness that preschool children are remarkably 42 at hiding. They often cover only their eyes with their hands, leaving the rest of their bodies 43 .

For a long time, this ineffective hiding method was 44 as evidence that children are hopelessly “egocentric”(自我中心的)creatures. But our 45 research results in child developmental psychology 46 that idea.

We brought young children aged 2-4 into our Minds in Development Lab at USC. Each 47 sat down with an adult who covered her own eyes or 48 . We then asked the child if she could 49 or hear the adult. Surprisingly, children replied that they couldn't. The same 50 happened when the adult covered her own mouth: 51 children said that they couldn't 52 to her.

A number of 53 ruled out that the children misunderstood what they were being asked. The results were clear: Our young subjects 54 the questions and knew 55 what was asked of them. Their 56 to the questions reflected their true 57 that “I can see you only if you can see me, too.” They simply 58 mutual(相互的)recognition and regard. Our 59 suggest when a child “hides” by putting a blanket over her head, it is not a result of egocentrism. In fact, children consider this method 60 when others use it.

41. A. following B. taking C. escaping D. directing

42. A. clever B. bad C. scared D. quick

43. A. exposed B. examined C. untouched D. imbalanced

44. A. supported B. guaranteed C. imagined D. interpreted

45. A. disappointing B. mixed C. surprising D. desired

46. A. explained B. confirmed C. contradicted D. tested

47. A. parent B. child C. researcher D. doctor

48. A. feet B. nose C. hands D. ears

49. A. see B. help C. reach D. fool

50. A. event B. thing C. action D. accident

51. A. Yet B. Now C. Soon D. Once

52. A. speak B. listen C. tum D. wave

53. A. instructions B. descriptions C. experiments D. assumptions

54. A. comprehended B. predicted C. explored D. ignored

55. A. partly B. honestly C. vaguely D. exactly

56. A. responses B. approaches C. contribution D. sensitivity

57. A. ability B. belief C. identity D. purpose

58. A. hold back B. relate to C. insist on D. make up

59. A. limitations B. requirements C. theories D. findings

60. A. tentative B. impressive C. creative D. effective

第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

May 21st this year marks the first International Tea Day, which was named officially 61 the United Nations on November 27th, 2019. To celebrate 62 festival, a number of events took place at the Chinese Businessman Museum in Beijing on Thursday.

The chairman of the China Culture Promotion Society 63 (address)the opening ceremony. “As a main promoter of the International Tea Day, the birthplace of tea and the 64 (large)tea-producing country, China has a 65 (responsible)to work with other countries to promote the healthy development of the tea industry. It can help to build a community with a 66 (share)future for mankind,” he said.

The “First International Tea Day Tea Road Cooperative Initiative” issued(发布)at the ceremony calls for people working in the tea industry to come together to promote international cooperation 67 cultural exchanges. A four-year tea promotion—Tea Road Cooperative Plan—was also issued in accordance with the initiative.

68 (strengthen)the connection with young people, the event included a number of public promotional activities on social media, 69 (invite)twenty-nine tea professionals from around the world to have thirty-six hours of uninterrupted live broadcasts.

The Chinese Ancient Tea Museum was officially unveiled(揭幕)at the ceremony, opening 70 (it)first exhibition: The Avenue of Truth—A Special Exhibition of Pu'er Tea.

第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)

第一节,短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改

增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(^),并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。

修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。

We all know that cycling is a greatly exercise. A doctor tells me people

who lives the longest are dancers and cyclists. Maybe it is because the

combination of fresh air, smooth movement and exercise. Whether you ride

a bicycle, you don't use petrol. So they are not producing carbon dioxide

and not cause air pollution. Just see how cars have been taken over our cities.

They often run at high speeds, what may put our lives in danger. And there were

traffic jams, too. Our cities will be better places if we replace cars with bicycle.

第二节 书面表达(满分25分)

学校英文报正在开展以Learning English Beyond the Classroom为题的讨论。请使用图表中的调查结果写一篇短文投稿,内容包括:

1.学习活动状况描述:

2.简单评论;

3.你的建议。

注意:

1.词数100左右;

2.短文的题目和首句已为你写好。

篇9:2022年全国乙卷高考英语试卷及答案

全国乙卷答案

第一部分听力

1.B 2.C 3.B 4.A 5.C 6.A 7.C 8.A 9.C 10.A 11.A 12.C 13.C 14.B 15.A

16.B 17.B 18.C 19.A 20.B

第二部分 阅读理解

21.B 22.B 23.C 24.A 25.D 26.C 27.B 28. A 29.C 30.A 31.D 32.C 33.D 34.D 35.B

七选五

36-40. DEGAF

完形填空

41-45.CBADC 46-50. CBDAB 51-55. BACAD 56-60. ABCDD

语法填空

61.by 62. the 63. addressed 64. largest 65. responsibility

66. shared 67. and 68. to 69. inviting 70. its

改错题

第一句:greatly→great第二句:lives→live

第三句:because后加of第四句:Whether→When

第五句:they→you;cause→causing

第六句:去掉been

第七句:what→which第八句:were→are

第九句:bicycle→bicycles

如何填高考志愿

汇总各类有用信息

这一步是关键,根据我们第一步确定的位次信息,来定位自己的报考资格。比如,超过一本线100多分,可以考虑985大学,强势211大学等,比如,北京邮电大学。然后,开始汇总各种可以参考的政策信息,还有历史数据(往年招生计划、往年录取数据、学校的办学特色、目标专业就业情况等等)。当我们准备好各类信息以后,就可以进行下一步工作。

初步进行志愿筛选

在充分分析第二步中的数据以后,然后再对照自己的成绩与位次,还有“分数线差”,来进行志愿初步筛选。主要包括学校与专业选择。学校一定要按照“冲一冲、稳一稳、保一保”的原则来选择,确保拉开梯度,充分利用平行志愿的优势。并且,在初选的过程中,可以尽可能多地选择一些学校,为自己接下来的选择留下充足的余地。我们初步选择好志愿以后,就可以进行接下来的志愿优化了。

高考志愿优化

高考志愿优化是关键,在前一步志愿初选的基础上,充分利用自己的成绩与位次,对专业的喜好以及对上大学的地域要求。再充分按照“冲一冲、稳一稳、保一保”的选择学校策略,分梯度“降序排列”自己的志愿。

如果不是实行新高考的省份,还是按照“学校+专业”的志愿模式,一所大学对应多个专业,这种情况下在“冲一冲”的学校,一定要勾选服专业从调剂。而在实行新高考的省份,高考志愿采用“专业+学校”的模式,“一个专业+一个学校”就是一个志愿。这种情况下,高考志愿可能会比较多,有些省份多达到96个志愿。

这种情况下,我们依然要采用“冲一冲、稳一稳、保一保”的策略来填报志愿。将自己非常喜欢但是优势不太大的志愿放到最前面,可以将前20—30个志愿默认为“冲一冲”的志愿。然后,再将自己喜欢并且具有一定优势的志愿放到中间的30-50个志愿用于“稳一稳”。最后,再将自己优势较大,并且非常有把握的志愿放到最后26-36个用来“保一保”。这样,可以保证自己填报的志愿万无一失,不至于造成滑档这样严重的后果。志愿与志愿一定拉开梯度。

高考试题全国卷

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全国高考二卷作文范文

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全国二卷作文

北京高考理综试题

全国高考试卷

全国高考语文试卷专家解析

评析全国高考生物ⅠⅡ卷试卷
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